[JPL] origins of so-called 'dixieland' jazz question

Jae Sinnett jaejazz at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 13 15:47:52 EDT 2008


Dan, yes I think you would be correct. There was more of a punctuating rhythm...that lacked the elasticity of what the traditional jazz bands demonstrated - within the ODJB concepts. As a result, many "traditionalists" felt "dixieland" didn't swing from the concept they were use to. That's where it could be debated with some but in thinking about how to further answer your question I fine myself in the rare position of feeling that I could play it for you easier than I can verbalize it. Certainly something for me to think about for a future class.

Jae 


--- On Wed, 8/13/08, DPolletta at aol.com <DPolletta at aol.com> wrote:

> From: DPolletta at aol.com <DPolletta at aol.com>
> Subject: Re: [JPL] origins of so-called 'dixieland' jazz question
> To: jazzproglist at jazzweek.com
> Date: Wednesday, August 13, 2008, 2:47 PM
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> In a message dated 8/13/2008 2:10:40 P.M. Eastern Daylight
> Time,  
> jaejazz at yahoo.com writes:
> 
> Ed...there are differences...albeit subtle... in so called
> "dixieland"  and 
> "traditional" jazz. Many of the NO musicians
> would say the main difference  
> would be in how the beat is interpreted. I also think
> too...there is more of a  
> blues element in the traditional jazz bands.>
>  
> Jae,
>  
> Correct me if I'm wrong, but wasn't it an issue of
> much trad early NO Jazz  
> having more of a two beat feel?  Trad jazz purists
> weren't all the found of  
> the trad revival of the 40s, in large part because the
> rhythm had a much looser  
> swing feel to it, IIRC.
>  
> Dan Polletta
> WCPN-FM
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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